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Re: None

Tuesday, 05/09/2017 2:02:28 PM

Tuesday, May 09, 2017 2:02:28 PM

Post# of 729922
why is there 1.9% interest on the preferreds if it is 75/25 all the way through? I dont understand why there will still be an interest number associated with the preferreds if the distribution is split 75/25 all the way through. 1.9% would suggest that there is a face value.

DISCLAIMER: I see valid points in both sides of the argument. I'm not c100% convinced of either side of the argument. I just have this 1.9% i terest question that I cant find a logical answer for.
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