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Because I’ve been here for years. You are just another pump n dump chump. They show up periodically.
No, i have more shares than you.
Just a pump n dump bud
Lol not going to happen. This company will never be worth any multiple of 100M
-31% on 20,000 shares lol
Spread has been 001 for a long time. Wide spreads are always bad news
Spread just opened up too
Wait warm isn’t being traded on the pink sheets anymore? Doesn’t seem right
Epaz seems like another Ponzi
Epaz seems like another Ponzi
So they have until next month?
Yeah that’s all bad news. .0045 today is also bad news.
Was there a filing? Seems early for quarterly data
Did new data come out?
Sadly I’m well aware of the death spiral. Todays action seems to be along those lines.
Where was this information found?
Was there new information showing dilution?
Was the 10q released?
needless to say im glad I unloaded all of my shares @.084
There isn't any DD to do. The shareholder letter provided nothing substantial and SA is a known OTC pump agent. Take the profit and wait for the next fall to .02.
For sure, I hope it works out. My cost average was .03 so I was just glad to be rid of it. Plus I made solid profits last august selling @.048
Seems doubtful given the history.
Glad to have unloaded my shares yesterday thanks to the twitter pump.
thanks for the reply
what does it mean to 'work' or 'print' an order? Someone still had to purchase the shares whether it be another investor or a market maker right? If it was a market maker wouldn't that just be one hand washing the other? What would prevent them from colluding on the sale. Furthermore, how was the sale able to happen at one exact ask price when im assuming there wasn't an ask lot even remotely approaching that number of shares? Im sure my questions bely my naivety in otc trading but it seems suspicious from a layman's perspective.
How were 2M shares traded after market?
1) Are otc shares tradable after market? I assume that clearly they are because it happened Friday 3/6 and it moved the mark almost 40% down
2) How was an individual able to move that many shares after market when there wasn't an ask lot of
that size especially since it seems that whole lot of 2M shares was moved at one particular ask.
3) Is this an example of one of the market makers acting in some nefarious but legal manner?
I appreciate any informed person replying to my perhaps naive questions. My position in warm is near total loss so this is more just for my information.