O.T., I understand what you're saying. What I don't understand is that if they (the naked short seller) is illegally not borrowing the stock before they sell the stock short, why would they worry about covering at a certain price?
Would they not be able to just hold and wait for the price to drop again? I was just curious about the posts that I read concerning the .01 cent target as the 'cover price' for the short sellers. Figured that if that were true, the price should have seen quite a leap after it passed a penny. Didn't seem to happen as advertised.
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