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janice shell

02/16/13 3:25 PM

#39985 RE: titonick #39983

I should think on the day the shares were issued, because it's those shares the party has agreed not to short against.
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samsamsamiam

02/16/13 3:26 PM

#39986 RE: titonick #39983

perhaps the question should be - why would they want to short them?
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Brad S

02/16/13 3:40 PM

#39988 RE: titonick #39983

I agree with Janice about the time period starting on the day the stock was physically received, considering the agreement would almost certainly be signed before the stock was even issued. You can't issue stock out and then afterward say, oh by the way.....
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236T568

02/16/13 4:29 PM

#39989 RE: titonick #39983

it would depend on the specifics of the agreement


I got a question for the board and Brad,say xyz stock and an entity who had shares issued to them agreed not to short the shares issued to them for a minimum of 180 days , would the 180 day period start on the date both parties agreed to the terms and it was signed by them and a judge?Or would the 180 day period start when the shares were actually issued to the company?