Does anyone have a handle on what the cost basis is for our new shares with respect to income tax liability purposes? That is, is the initial cost of shares being held by an individual still the starting point. Say if I paid xx number of dollars pre conversion for my shares, is that still my cost basis for income reporting purposes? (assuming some day there is income to be reported).
What about payouts received for pre conversion (reorganization) shares (i.e. escrowed shares)?
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