A little help please for those of us less educated.
Looking at note G in the quarterly and doing some math(hopefully correct)based on those numbers. Does this suggest that someone was handed 700 million(immediately available open market)shares in exchange for $321,700 in cash being a cost basis of .00045857 per share?
Are there no holding time requirements on a 504 placement as in the shares are available to sell immediately?
Does this suggest that any sale above .001 is a 100% profit on that investment therefore the seller doesn't give a crap about the present share price?
Full disclosure. I doubt your response will convince me to unload my million shares but in the interest of my continued investing education I look forward to your answer.