OK, $34 and change is 68% of the face value which it is listed at on the POR liquidation table so how did the concept of 75% of the court ordered price come into being? It looks to me like the court ordered pay out plus a couple of years interest comes to 75% of face value, the percent listed on the settlement side of the POR table.
I don't remember coming across the clause pertaining to a percentage reduction of the price set by the court and I'm done researching for tonight.
If anyone has a heads up I thank you in advance for pointing me to it.