See, that's what I'm thinking. By diluting like this, it may have been the only way they could make the deal happen. The buyer might be buying at 0.01 per outstanding share, but they aren't paying 0.01 x 10.4 billion. The dilution allows the execs to own more shares and get a better payout. The dilution allows the buyer to obtain a bigger % of the shares prior to the date of sale. And we, as shareholders, are simply going to get 0.01 for whatever we have.
I am basing this on the fact that the history of the company has not been shady. If they are, then this all goes out the window. Otherwise, it's actually looking pretty straightforward here.
News 
Market Data 
Discover 
