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kittie88

03/07/10 8:38 AM

#27049 RE: Iggy_Bot #27048

Don't you think any divy would depend on the number of shares you have? Has nothing to do with the number of shareholders
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guzzlergut

03/07/10 8:53 AM

#27050 RE: Iggy_Bot #27048

Yes I meant to say SIX HUNDREDTHS OF A CENT with emphasis, like Dr. Evil on the Austin Powers movies.
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bar10der steve

03/07/10 9:04 AM

#27051 RE: Iggy_Bot #27048

These divies are based on the amount of shares each shareholder has: ex- 1:1 or 1:250 means 1 divy for each share you own or 1 divy for every 250 shares owned. Or you could also look at it as since there is a set amount of shares offered, fewer shareholders would imply that each shareholder holds more shares, ex- 100 shareholders, than if there were millions of shareholders. Therefore fewer shareholders would get more divies because they hold more shares individually. I am only theoretically speaking about the latter half of this message.