There is a play on words that is still confusing to me and should be good cause for specificity. There is "parent","owner","subsidiary","control", etc.
Here is how I understand it: WMI is the parent of (until seizure) WMB WMI is the parent of WMBfsb independend of WMB
IF IF IF WMBfsb is a DIRECT subsidiary of WMI, and WMBfsb was soluble (and therefore not touchable y the FDIC), then why would the FDIC think they can take and sell them AND OUR DEPOSITS from WMBfsb?