snackman, do the m-m's govern proportion of buyers/sellers AND the price at which they're willing to execute their trade?
i don't doubt the m-m's influence the price, especially when volumes are anemic BUT, a dropping price is a dropping price and, CLEARLY, there are not enough buyers competing for available shares for sale.
is this so hard a concept to grasp, or am i totally confused? set me straight if you will snackman.