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Manti

07/24/07 8:17 PM

#30310 RE: shadow43560 #30249

The statement is blatantly FALSE. The ONLY way it can be construed to be true is to rewrite it to state that the common shareholders will each still have the same percentage ownership of the issued common shares at the time of the split. The percentage ownership of the COMPANY will change dramatically at the time of the rs regardless of whether the preferreds are converted or not since they are not subject to the split.