No hassles on the numbers but why 82% and not 81% or 83%? Not being a jerk but trying to understand thought process and your take on why the odds you give.
EDIT - By the way, what happens if they do interact modestly negatively but they still hit 10%?
Ok... on 7 Jun we heard again from the company (JP) Bear Stearns Confab
IMO... JP was upbeat in his last call, he seemed relaxed and "in control"
reference #msg-1090 After listening to the CC, have your odds on a drug drug interaction changed @ all... or what is your "gut" feeling?
It is my understanding IDIX and NVS are studying at least 5 or 6 criteria to determine if NM283 will be moved forward (to Phase 3 clinical trials)
Would you go 10% probability on a meaningful drug interaction?
and if there is no interaction... the 10% difference should be a slam dunk, given past studies of NM283 and Peg produced 62% PCR- (what curve balls am i missing in my analysis?) : )
what do you think the odds are that NM283 goes to P3?
I say 91%... don't ask me why not 90% or 92% (i am smiling : )