Im confused
If shareholders "know", and the information was 'not disclosed to the civil court judge', then how exactly do the shareholders 'know', and how can someone be 'categorically wrong' if the information was not available, and how exactly is it you are privy to this information if it was undisclosed, and I, as a shareholder, dont 'know', would that not be illegal considering only 'some' of the shareholders actually 'know' of this information.