Thank you, Hweb. You are helping, believe it or not. So, correct me if I'm wrong here: In essence, they sold 33.3 millon shares for about .30 per unit. For every share, there is one .35 cent warrant attached.
That's simple. Is that correct? If so, why not just do it that way? Why do it with pre-funded warrants and make it convuluted. What is the motive for that? What am I missing? Maybe if I understood the motive, I wouldn't be worried about nefarious motives or short selling. What am I missing?
Why not just 1 share and 1 warrant like most normal capital raises? There must be a reason that I'm not understanding. WHAT IS THE REASON????
So what you are saying, and my simple conversion above, is that the investors ARE bleeding. Is that right? I want to see an alignment of interests and not worry about being stabbed in the back. That's what I need to know.
And why is the analyst saying one of the investors is shorting the stock this way. Implying, your understanding is not that simple.
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