to submit to have Judge Walrath actually “Sign” the “Stipulation
Why wasn't this done when the issue first came up in court? If this were done then then there would be no need to open anything now. Why didn't Walrath insist that a document be prepared for her signature? Why wasn't she p*ssed at them for doing what they did without her approval?
" he’s probably simply going to request to re-open the BK for a brief period' to submit to have Judge Walrath actually “Sign” the “Stipulation” as the Judge already said she would have signed it in open Court' ..."
Wouldn't this 'Contract CHANGE', need approval of those affected by this change? Or, do Judges have the power to 'decide' to just change the terms??