GSK's original patent for hypertension expired, Teva file ANDA, started selling the generic, then GSK had a patent re-issued including the CHF indication. Why FDA wouldn't require Hikma to have identical label as V, including R-IT, which they required Teva to do, is not clear to me - that GSK/Teva case is weird. Is it because in that case a patent expired but was replaced with a new one?