That confusion is intentional imho. How could management have explained why they did not include the “effective” doses from the 2a in the 2b/3 trial. That “T” thing would have cropped it’s ugly head.
Does this quote from Anavex’s presentation clear things up?
“97% Consistency: MMSE, ADCS-ADL and EEG/ERPs: Identified relations show that high dose (concentration) is linked to improved response and low dose (concentration) to poor response
The doses they were comparing were 10,20,30,40 and 50 mgs.
Just because they are now calling 10 low and 20 high doesn’t explain a darn thing imho.