Just trying to be precise, and maybe devil advocate here:
Quote: —
In light of the statistically-significant differential effects reported between the EPA and control groups, a POSA would have attributed the reduction in Apo B to EPA. (Id. at 737:24-738:8.) —
The first half is wrong as you put it, but the 2nd half, after the space I put in, is subjective.
I´m neither a pharma guy, nor a statistican and so I don´t get it. What is exactly wrong with this?
With the sentence:
...do you mean, that she can´t compare the EPA Group to Control Group?
So... EPA was over time statistically significant Control Group was not statistically significant over time.
She states the statistical-significance between both Groups and this is wrong? If so, why is this wrong? Is this not statistically significant because the difference is too less….I mean, if you compare both Groups...???
I haven’t seen where anybody sent this to IR so I did. I mentioned that many of the posters on Ihub feel this may be very important and relative information for the Amarin team. FYI