what does it mean to 'work' or 'print' an order? Someone still had to purchase the shares whether it be another investor or a market maker right? If it was a market maker wouldn't that just be one hand washing the other? What would prevent them from colluding on the sale. Furthermore, how was the sale able to happen at one exact ask price when im assuming there wasn't an ask lot even remotely approaching that number of shares? Im sure my questions bely my naivety in otc trading but it seems suspicious from a layman's perspective.
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