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boozeman

12/04/19 8:54 PM

#231643 RE: marjac #231642

May I please ask another dumb question? If Amarin has the patents in place and they are enforceable, why would Amarin pay to settle? Seems like a gross misuse of shareholder assets. Is it strictly to make it go away more quickly? If so, what’s to keep any entity from legally challenging patents in order to receive payment.