Are they ruling out the high-risk primary population quoted below? What was the reasoning behind that? Please explain for the benefit of those of us who can't login to the livestream.
Thanks
To quote jeffries:
The "high-risk" primary population is a request for pts with high trigs, existing diabetes, and one other factor (one of many are listed out). We believe the label could reflect a "high-risk" primary population and we'll await final discussion by committee during the vote later today - but the secondary prevention is the vast majority of what is likely to be using Vascepa anyway,
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