Dude, seriously, you need to think about this before you start debating me. You're wasting my time and my posts and it's all because you are too lazy to think through this.
Let's say there are 140 million outstanding shares today. Let's say I buy 1 share at .20.
I now own 1/140,000,000 of the company for .20
Now let's say 100 million of the shares are given 6 shares each. Now we have 640 million shares.
I now own 1/640,000,000 of the company. My share was deluted.
If the share price adjusts for the "forward split" then it would be reduced by 1/6th and that would bring the stock price down to .03 a share.
So now my 1 share has faced delution and a price reduction.
Even if the share price remains at .20 I have still been subjected to dilution.
How do you not understand that?
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