Amigo, I agree with your assertion that SHE is total assets minus total liabilities.
However, what I am not so sure of is the reclassification of the warrants to shares. If that is now calculated like a promissory note because the holders now guarantee to purchase at those strike prices, why wouldn't the shares now be considered as an intangible asset OR as part of cash and cash equivalent?
If I have an outstanding "promise to pay" I would think it would be shown on the asset side somewhere. I may be wrong here, Its just always been a theory. But I feel it was done for some reason. I admit I am not an accountant however. LOL