Why would a judge rule on other motions if they determined and subsequently ruled they don't have jurisdiction? To me the court determined it didn't have jurisdiction; therefore would not rule on any other motions. Seems they wouldn't want to make case law if they didn't feel they could hear the case and would defer vice creating a ruling on motions it had no jurisdiction over. Because of this, the judge would not opine on any other motions and simply dismiss based off jurisdiction alone.
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