But it wasn't dismissed by a court order. It was dismissed by the plaintiff. Please read number one. Here is a familiar quote
Quote "Judge had to approve the judgment w/o prejudice. You'll have to trust me on that, I know of what I speak and since you don't know the difference between copyright and trademark, I can understand why you keep asking the same or similar questions. "
I can quote from memory the difference between copyright and trademark thanks for the education. I also now know that a judge is not always involved in a plaintiff dismissing a complaint and it being dismissed (without prejudice) without it ever coming across a judges desk. Here's the proof I have put out twice. I have also copy and pasted the link ... Because I always back up my research with verification
(A) Without a Court Order. Subject to Rules 23(e), 23.1(c), 23.2, and 66 and any applicable federal statute, the plaintiff may dismiss an action without a court order by filing:
(i) a notice of dismissal before the opposing party serves either an answer or a motion for summary judgment; or
(ii) a stipulation of dismissal signed by all parties who have appeared.
(B) Effect. Unless the notice or stipulation states otherwise, the dismissal is without prejudice. But if the plaintiff previously dismissed any federal- or state-court action based on or including the same claim, a notice of dismissal operates as an adjudication on the merits.
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