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DeNaMaFaHeight

04/28/17 7:39 AM

#31497 RE: Risicare #31474

Why is there a $1.5 billion buy order sitting at 0.0001?

Would appreciate if someone can help me understand this:

>>> When a market maker matches a trade they sell to the buyer and then buy from the seller, the fist leg always got posted, which is a short <<<

http://otcshortreport.com/?index=NGBL&action=view

1). Given that the information reported from above is not accurate because market makers always post the first leg first, which is a short and that is what being reported, and the second leg is not reported, then why isn’t the ratio "% of vol shorted" stays constant, why is the ratio range from 13% to 92% ? it would seem reasonable that the ratio of "% of vol shorted" remain roughly constant if market markers always report the sell (short) side first. But this is not the case, the ratio we saw in the report range from as low as 13% to as high as 92%, so unless market makers are not organized or something else is happening.
2). Why is there a huge bid sitting at 0.0001, in the tune of 1.5 billion buy orders, could this because the shorts want to cover at 0.0001?
3). Why isn't the market maker match the buy/sell orders from what is already sitting in the book first? why is he has to find buyers/sellers in the last minute. Why is the market marker has no buy/sell orders already sitting in the book when there are 1.5 billion buys reported online ?

Thanks in advance !