Emulwa, can you please explain to me the following sentence of the article:
"There is no official indication whether TD Ameritrade will repurchase potentially billions of shorted shares on their own, or force their customers to bear the brunt of the loss. With primary blame for this incident not yet assigned, it's anyone's guess."
Are they saying that it is possible that the customers would not receive their shares and loose those shares? Can you please clarify this?
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