Suppose that you are a doctor and a bunch of your patients are on statins because you believe that they will benefit from it. You are then made aware of a drug called Vascepa and a trial called R-IT that has proven to enhance the effect of statins by lets say 25%. The drug has a safety profile comparable to placebo and its FDA approved. Why would you NOT then prescribe Vascepa to your patients on statins?
If R-IT is successful and marketed wisely Amarin will barely even need sales reps.
In my opinion it could easily get to the point where it would be considered malpractice and negligence for any doctor not to prescribe Vascepa in combination with a statin.
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