I'm assuming, looking at the waveform, that latency is the time (ms) it takes for the wave to reach peak amplitude after stimulus. Just eyeballing the graph, it looks like the latencies of the baseline and 36 day waves are almost identical, so no change in latency between those two waves, which is probably why latencies weren't even mentioned. You know if there was a noticeable difference, they surely would have mentioned it. Although, the latencies of the baseline and 36 day waves aren't that much greater than that of the normal wave. So maybe that is also why they're hyping amplitude, b/c there is such a clear difference between a normal brain and one with mild-mod alzheimer's, whereas with latency, not so much.