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clawmann

05/08/15 3:03 AM

#422315 RE: SilverRose #422314

SR: The first bit you quoted indicates that the mortgage servicing rights and obligations have already been purchased by JPM; so I don't see any additional consideration being owed for those.

However, the second bit indicates that there are some assets that are subject to an option to purchase, and - if the option is exercised - the purchase price for those assets is to be their book value (not some multiple of book value as suggested by one poster).

The questions are: has that option been exercised and, if so, with respect to which assets and what was the purchase price. These are questions worthy of further research. Maybe - as you suggest - the FDIC has not yet determined the price and so JPM still has to decide whether to exercise that option or not.

I have often thought that it would have been irresponsible of the FDIC to sell in a one-bidder overnight auction the whole bank for only 1.88 billion. They had to be concerned that they might be allowing JPM to purchase the bank for a small percentage of its book value. The urgency of the situation might have caused the FDIC to sell for an initial purchase price of 1.88, with some additional payment to come later after a proper book valuation could be done. That makes sense to me.

PickStocks

05/08/15 9:43 AM

#422322 RE: SilverRose #422314

Great point, this is what the case in Judge Collyer courtroom is being settled. "“the Assuming Bank purchases all mortgage servicing rights and obligations of the Failed Bank,”

How much responsibility is JPM in tow for, if they did buy all servicing rights and obligations then JPM is responsible for settling Duesche Bank and MBS and we get the 2.9 billion back along with anything else.......


pick and choose is the method JPM went for.....

ora123

05/08/15 11:27 AM

#422337 RE: SilverRose #422314

You are right with WMB not WMI...Any other issues?