Mark, I appreciate your imput. But you say:-
"...This is incorrect. There is no difference as far as the company's books are concerned between a share which is shorted naked and one shorted with a borrow. In fact, many shares which are shorted naked eventually find a borrow, and many shares which are shorted with a borrow eventually fail...".
What is getting to me is if, by the naked shorting an extra two or three million shares are out there. I mean someone has to buy for the transaction to be complete. Then, when the company comes to pay out the dividend, it can only pay out to what itself has issued, and is registered on its books.
In this case, two or three million would be screaming 'where's my dividend'. Yes/no?