Also, how did they come up with the conclusion to reduce to 120 mg? If they thought 120 mg would have given them a good efficacy read with favorable AEs, why didn't they use 120 mg in the first place instead of using a dose 100% higher?
It's like they begged the DMC to do anything at all just so they wouldn't have to stop the trial completely. Just how bad could the neutropenia have been this early in the trial for the DMC to make this recommendation?? Must have been pretty significant.
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