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Re: Steady_T post# 217124

Tuesday, 03/05/2013 11:48:13 PM

Tuesday, March 05, 2013 11:48:13 PM

Post# of 312016
Steady T and johnik are correct, as usual.

Two agreeing parties can agree to whatever terms they want. There is no "requirement" for a judge to approve terms that two parties agreed to. It's only if a judge himself imposes a ban is there requirements for him to impose it. But in this case, he's not imposing a thing.

Raw

Research & analysis on some of my favorite stocks is located on the sticky note on the SwingTrade board.

http://investorshub.advfn.com/boards/board.aspx?board_id=1781