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Tuesday, December 11, 2012 1:22:31 AM
Now the question is IF there is indeed less than 545 mil o/s from company buybacks at this point in time since the last report, how do the shorts cover over 545 mil shares into less of an outstanding basis? Just speculating since I've heard about cases where Naked Shorts will use the authorized as their shorting basis.
This is funny but I remember reading about one company a few years ago that was trading sub penny and was bot out for $.30 per share. The stock then ran to over $1.
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