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Thursday, March 15, 2012 11:12:46 AM
I accept, as a layman at this, when you say pharma companies expense "a whole ton of money" to pursue FDA approvals - that only makes sense - time is money regardless of what party is investing the time. Why should the FDA be an exception?
Is it also not true that non-pharma companies also expense relatively huge sums to obtain approvals? Do devices, for example, require less time invested by the FDA to get to approved status? Less scientific data, trial results, chemistry, biology, disease, bacteria, lab work, etc.?
You also say that pharma companies expense " a whole tomn of money X 10" to prevent their competitors from obtaining FDA approval. Do you know of any factual examples of this or have any proof of such events and would this not be criminal behavior or obsttruction of justice or bribery?
I read from time to time of corporate officers and directors in various industries being handed their as*es here and in other countries for bribes, collusion, price-fixing and worse, but I don't recall reading of solid evidence that a pharma company actually paid the FDA to obstruct approval of a competitors drug. If you know of a few examples, would you please help me here? You may not have meant it, and I may seem naive, but your message implied that it happens regularly and I'm left wondering if you have any clarifying proof of this. An official accepting a bribe to do something is one thing, such unfortunately happens from time to time for various reasons, but common occurrence?
Thanks
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