Sunday, February 06, 2011 7:01:57 PM
I have an issue for debate and would like to find the actual fact if we can find the link and settle it.
I have you quoted below with a statement that sounds like Philex intentionally bought fep through fecof and diversified their portfolio that way for some reason........here is the quote
"There is also a reason or two to think there were probably some good reasons why Philex did diversify their ownership in the ways they have... putting some shared ownership in a base with Forum in London, and some bit in Canada (and the U.S.) with FECOF. "
my understanding is they <philex made an outright bid for fep at 48 pence.....theres a link to that in my previous post.......and then when it didnt happen..they bought 50% of fecof instead to get more control of fep.......This is my understanding so far...if my timeline is wrong please show me the link that shows fecof bought fep after philex bought 50% of fecof.thank you very much
Also, i will admit humbily that i dont know how the canadian securities act works.........but why am i wrong to think that if the majority of the shareholders/management which is already on the board decides to use their controling interest of fecof <53%> to decide to accept the sale of the remainder of the company at a fair price which could be 5 cents if they average the monthly average price for this stock. what law is there that tells the majority that they cant accept a bid for the company with 53% of the vote........I'm not "acting" smart.....I just would appreciate it very much if you can tell me something i'm overlooking here on how this would play out.....do they need 75% of the vote to sell fecof or something like that? what am i missing?
much appreciated, thanks
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