Maybe I misunderstand your statement, but why would anyone exercise a 2.50 call when the intrinsic value (the price of the underlying stock) is under 2.50 (the exercise price)?
Having said that, if the seller of the calls was "naked" as opposed to "covered", then he'd/she'd have to buy shares ahead of the October 15th close (if the stock price stays up here north of 2.50) and THAT would be positive for the stock price over the next couple of days.
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