Company wasn't diluting IR told us, it was the conversion of the debt that started in later April.
So if the conversion started in April, how is the float the same?
When the part of the A/S is offered to offset debt and the shares enter the market, the trading float increases, right? Or were these shares already O/S's at .02 and part of the trading float? Was looking at the 2008 financial and the whole debt/debentures part makes me dizzy.
Also, why did they double the A/S.
Finally, if Mel is sure that someone is "taking a bath" on their POPN and they have been dumping since April, why does POPN need to investigate the trading pattern? You can't know what is going on and not know at the same time imo.
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