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Re: breezin_chs post# 35832

Sunday, 06/06/2010 11:13:40 AM

Sunday, June 06, 2010 11:13:40 AM

Post# of 46576
Priceless? I'm not quite sure what you mean. Everything I said in my post is true. MM's short the stock, they do it legally every day as a means to keeping the market orderly. They're doing what they are supposed to do. Those shorts are accounted for in the Finra SHO report. Not every MM abuses that role. I didn't say they do/don't abuse it. Just because it's happening doesn't mean it's a negative thing. If abusive shorting was that easy to recognize; why hasn't the SEC noticed it? Why hasn't RMDM contacted the SEC and formally request an investigation?

"the market-maker short activity in RMDM looks disproportionate, wouldn't you say?"

Can you explain the friction factor of zero on a day where the buy volume is 174,958,853 and sell volume is 41,099,414 (March 5)? Or, on March 2 when the buy volume was 2,006,000 and the sell volume was 346,001,441?

http://www.otcmarkets.com/otciq/ajax/showFinancialReportById.pdf?id=29786

That doesn't fall within the "roughly comparable amounts" guidlines, right? But, the friction factor is 0, which means there is no manipulative activity detected. Nothing is abnormal in the way the stock is being traded on those days according to the report from Buyins.net. As such, that activity doesn't affect the price of the stock?

From Buyins.net report:
Here is how to understand Friction Factor:
1. If Friction Factor is positive, more buying than selling caused RMDM?s price to rise
2. If Friction Factor is negative, more selling than buying caused RMDM?s price to
fall
3. If Friction Factor is 0, there was no discernable activity either way
4. If Friction Factor is abnormal, it means that there is either a bearish bias or a
bullish bias to how market makers are making market in your stock.