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Re: Bizreader post# 165158

Tuesday, 03/09/2010 3:13:40 PM

Tuesday, March 09, 2010 3:13:40 PM

Post# of 730279
To use this logic, the opposite must be true. then all who sold today will be in the money since their trades didn't settle before a possible settlement and therefore they will be entitled to the proceeds of a settlement? Yeah, I'm going to go ahead and say that makes no sense. If it's true that anyone who bought today and the case settlement were to occur before their trade settlement, then the opposite side of that must be true: any who sold today will be entitled to case settlement proceeds since their trade from selling didn't settle yet.
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  • 6M
  • 1Y
  • 5Y
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