"It's beyond me why he even bothers filing those Form 4's for internal transfers."
Isn't it reasonable to expect that the SEC would question a subsequent filing if one of the funds had a buy or sell which, when added to or subtracted from the previous ownership number, didn't equal the new ownership number?
Maybe he's just avoiding that question with these filings.
Do you have any idea what purpose drives the re-balancing itself?
Register for free to join our community of investors and share your ideas. You will also get access to streaming quotes, interactive charts, trades, portfolio, live options flow and more tools.