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Tuesday, January 12, 2010 4:37:59 PM
I saw that and I said to myself..."now there is an un-defined cpaitalized term." Is that a mistake? Is it a leftover from some other document/deal that was used as a model? Is the term "Target" defined in another undisclosed document? Certainly might seem to support your theory; however, under "use of proceeds" it is said that the funds will be used for general corporate purposes.
Any legal analysis I post is not a formal legal opinion and may not be relied on by anyone for any purpose. If you want legal advice you can rely on, hire a lawyer.
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