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Re: dmceng post# 82436

Wednesday, 07/22/2009 9:16:05 PM

Wednesday, July 22, 2009 9:16:05 PM

Post# of 730850
One has to ask, if the FDIC's Motion To Dismiss in the district court has not yet been ruled on, why would the FDIC sue JPM before a decision was rendered? Prior to this the FDIC merely joined JPM in their effort to intervene in the district court and I posted that all the fdic had to do was sue JPM if they wanted JPM involved. I don't recall the motion to intervene being ruled upon. So obviously something has changed...either the FDIC has to sue JPM to pony up some cash, or the settlement is near and in order to facilitate settlement they made JPM a party.
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