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Friday, 03/20/2009 2:30:12 PM

Friday, March 20, 2009 2:30:12 PM

Post# of 733505
let me put out a couple questions here....

what if jpm and fdic plead (for lack of better terminology or legalese) under the alford doctrine (theres probably enough evidence to convict, but dont admit guilt) ??

now, for arguments sake, lets use 7 per share

would that be split straight across the board to all shareholders, or are they somehow going to discern among preferreds and commons??

now, on the same note kind of, considering the fdic doesnt have the iron to pay this massive settlement, how do you think the court or whomever would split the settlement?? 70% jpm 30% fdic?

i would appreciate any input. thanks much !!!
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