Well on the scenario given, let's say Trump offered $1 per share -- he is buying the company's legitimate shares.
Since we know that we have legitimate shares + air shares, the air shares would have to be bought from somewhere, correct?
Trump already has all the real shares from the company, so the shorts aren't getting a hold of those. Now, if that's the case, they would still need to close their short position -- and the only way of doing that, is by buying it from the people that own the air shares -- and there's no other way to do this except paying what those people wanna sell it at, is it not?
I'm not knowledgeable in this particular nuance, so if somebody knows how this works exactly, I'm curious what the actual process is.
