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Re: Doobie Brother post# 6325

Wednesday, 05/19/2004 12:08:10 PM

Wednesday, May 19, 2004 12:08:10 PM

Post# of 358524
DoobieBrother....I wonder how they do the conversion of 10mil to 100mil? The MM's have to have the shares to accomplish a buy/sell...I'm still baffled how that happens

Sterling post excerpt:

"Let's just say, for simple math, that I sold 10 million shares while there was no "bid" and a "ask" of .0001 cent. Those shares will be reflected to appear as buys going through at .0001 cent. Why??? Because the MMs will now in-turn takes those shares and sell them to Urban from a coordinated deal at .00002 cent(s). What this does is allow for Urban to buy and retire 5 times the amount of the original amount initially reflected at the "ask" thus reflecting huge volume since .00002 x 5 = .0001 cent."


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