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Re: rpt post# 185855

Wednesday, 07/02/2008 8:27:51 AM

Wednesday, July 02, 2008 8:27:51 AM

Post# of 246035
RPT I have reread that statement several times and others have said since TS owns 80% with his E's he need not hold a meeting just vote his % and its done. But this phrase keeps haunting me

the Company shall call and hold a special meeting of the
shareholders within thirty (30) days of such occurrence

since they say shareholders not majority shareholders I would assume (hate that word) all shareholders would be given the right to vote whether they own 1 share or 1B even if their vote doesn't matter given TS's %. To specifically state or use the word shareholders and then not give all shareholders the chance to vote would go against the verbiage they used in the clause.

Maybe someone with some legal background could explain how this could state one thing and then only allow 1 shareholder and no actual meeting. TS would probably not show in person out of fear anyway but it would be an interesting meeting for who ever he sent. I could picture state police in the room as guards for individual running the meeting.