Can someone please explain this to me...
Forgive my ignorance as to how these loans are going to get funded. If they diluted 2,000,000,000 shares recently, let's say all at .0002, that's $400,000. Clearly that isn't anywhere near the amount of the first closings. How is selling at the current pps going to fund the 672m loan?
Without an outside institution, where is the money going to come from? Pardon my ignorance, I'm in 3rd grade.