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Wednesday, May 02, 2007 1:51:43 PM
If you can see through your laughing tears how about this one?
"If one was considered a holder of shares on 12.01.2006, (considered qualified to receive the dividend), and sold prior to the ex-date qualification, what happens to the shares that were to be issued to the qualified individual, that were sold with divy attached?"
Do they revert to the company treasury? Or is the final pool of shares to be issued = the intersection of 12.01.2006 holders + those in that group who continued to hold?
Do you think these guys are really that stupid or just part of the act?
Remember: Mr. Market never lies. GLTY
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